Practice Test: General Science (64)
Answer Key, Sample Responses, Evaluation Chart, and Score Calculation Tool
Answer Key
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NOTE: When you take the actual test, you will receive a score report that provides subarea-level performance, not objective-level performance. Information about test results can be found at Score Report Explanation.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
Related Objectives and Rationale |
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| 1 | A |
Objective 001 In the engineering design process, researching a design (Correct Response A) is an important component in understanding and creating a solution to a problem. This includes investigations, activities, and experimentation to determine all the parameters, criteria, limitations, and restrictions that are involved in achieving a successful solution to a problem. In this scenario, the students are researching various weights of pets to determine what material or design could hold a wide range of pet sizes. Therefore, they have yet to create their prototype, and are not in the process of modifying (Incorrect Response B), optimizing (Incorrect Response C), or evaluating (Incorrect Response D) their designs. |
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| 2 | A |
Objective 001 Shape and dimensions of the levee (Correct Response A) will affect how it functions in preventing flooding. On the other hand, cost (Incorrect Response B) and transportation (Incorrect Response C) of the materials have a smaller effect on the levees' ability to be breached, compared to its design and components. The devices' ability to support vehicles on the adjacent road (Incorrect Response D) is an important factor to consider; however, this question focuses more on problems that may arise from the effects of vehicles than how the levee will function to prevent flooding in the area. |
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| 3 | C |
Objective 001 Since the warning system has already been developed, the modeling and testing of prototypes (Correct Response C) must be the next step in the engineering design process. Defining the problem (Incorrect Response A), brainstorming a solution (Incorrect Response B), and researching criteria and constraints (Incorrect Response D) are steps that occur before the development of a prototype; therefore, they are not considered during the finalization part of this process. |
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| 4 | B |
Objective 001 The first action to take when evaluating a bridge design is calculating the necessary strength of the components based on its extreme load capacity (Correct Response B). The engineer's design must not only be able to withstand everyday traffic but also be prepared for the events of extreme stress that might arise while the bridge is functional, to protect people, property, and infrastructure within the area. Comparing tensile strength (Incorrect Response A) and selecting materials (Incorrect Response C) are parts of the engineering process that generally occur before the evaluation step and primarily occur during either the research or building a prototype stages. Testing to determine if the bridge has the ability to hold a variety of loads (Incorrect Response D) is important and must occur, but not necessarily before evaluation can begin. |
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| 5 | B |
Objective 001 To keep the production price of an air conditioner low, one of the key considerations is to meet the specifications in the simplest way possible (Correct Response B). This typically means using the fewest assembly steps and the least amount of material, since increases in either can increase the cost of the final product. Whether the design will continue to meet specifications during its lifespan (Incorrect Response A) is a question that focuses on quality of item rather than cost. Determining if the design will function normally under a variety of conditions (Incorrect Response C) and asking if the design will be easy to understand by prospective customers (Incorrect Response D) are important considerations during research and development in the engineering design process. However, they do not directly affect the cost to produce each air conditioner model. |
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| 6 | A |
Objective 001 To test the effectiveness of each mechanical arm, the students must determine its maximum capacity. Evaluating the limitations of the different prototypes is the best method for determining which design best achieves the goal of the project (Correct Response A). Calculating the durability of the materials (Incorrect Response B), moving the arm to perform various tasks (Incorrect Response C), and timing how long the arm can hold on to an object (Incorrect Response D) are important components to consider in the overall design. However, these tests focus on either prototype quality or other criteria in relation to functionality without specifically evaluating them against the goal of creating a device that can grasp and lift objects. |
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| 7 | D |
Objective 001 Steel has greater strength and sturdiness (Correct Response D) in comparison to the other materials that are commonly used to construct patio furniture. Even though steel can be resistant to corrosion (Incorrect Response A), other material, such as plastic, can also withstand outdoor conditions. Steel has the capability to be offered in a wide array of shapes and colors (Incorrect Response B), but the other materials can also be painted, tinted, and shaped. Lastly, comfort (Incorrect Response C) is a subjective measure that depends more on the shape of the chair rather than on its composition. Steel and aluminum can be an exception as they often become hot to the touch when left out in the sun. |
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| 8 | D |
Objective 001 The ability of a structure to survive the stresses of an earthquake depends largely on how well the building can deal with the horizontal stresses of the seismic waves. Steel and wood are ductile, rather than brittle, and have the ability to bend as the energy from the seismic activity shakes the building back and forth (Correct Response D). Brick and concrete are more resistant to moving (Incorrect Response A), but this makes them brittle, and they will respond to the seismic waves by breaking rather than bending. Steel and concrete can both withstand considerable compression forces from vertical loads (Incorrect Response C) and can be reasonably secured (Incorrect Response B), although the methods may differ by material. |
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| 9 | B |
Objective 001 Adding rebar increases the strength of the concrete structure without adding much more weight (Correct Response B). The more ductile rebar allows for movement when a shearing stress acts upon the building, which protects the building's structure. Concrete structures can be built using modular components whether or not the concrete is reinforced by rebar (Incorrect Response A). While the rebar prevents the structure from failure, the building material will still crack (Incorrect Response C) as well as crumble and fragment (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 10 | B |
Objective 002 Torque is a measure of rotational force. Of the options available, only the wrench (Correct Response B) is primarily used to cause an object to rotate on its axis. A mallet (Incorrect Response A) can be categorized as a third-class lever. In this type of simple machine, the force applied moves in the same direction as the force produced. A block and tackle device (Incorrect Response C) is also a simple machine, but the force applied is in the opposite direction as the force produced. A rivet gun (Incorrect Response D) does not fit easily into the different categories of simple machines, but it functions like the mallet in that the force is linear, not rotational. |
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| 11 | B |
Objective 002 Diamond-dust drill bits are used to drill holes in tile, porcelain, glass, or stone because diamonds are the hardest natural material. Hardness depends on the molecular structure of the material, and diamonds are particularly hard due to their lattice arrangement of carbon atoms double bonded to other carbon atoms (Correct Response B). Other properties, such as friction coefficient (Incorrect Response A), durability (Incorrect Response C), and melting point (Incorrect Response D), are more important to other physical or chemical changes that occur within structures of materials. |
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| 12 | C |
Objective 002 The channels created for the derby car axles need to be as small and even as possible so that the car moves as intended. The most appropriate tool for the task is the drill because it can create controlled channels for the axles that will reduce wheel and axle wobbling. Using a drill (Correct Response C) is more precise and will remove a more even amount of wood than either the utility knife (Incorrect Response A) or the screwdriver (Incorrect Response B). Assuming the axles are flat at the end, rather than tipped, the hammer (Incorrect Response D) is unlikely to successfully drive the axles into the body of the derby car. |
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| 13 | A |
Objective 002 Hot-dip galvanization is an example of conditioning processes in manufacturing (Correct Response A) because the step consists of coating a product in order to improve its characteristics by changing its properties to become more resistant to oxidation and corrosion, compared to primary processes that focus on shaping and sizing a product from raw material. Finishing (Incorrect Response B) is the process of altering the surface of a product, such as cleaning, painting, or removal of defects. Unlike conditioning, the primary focus of this step is appearance or extension of product life during the final stages of completion of the product, rather than modifying its internal properties to a specified criteria of functionality of the final product. Assembling (Incorrect Response C) is the step in the manufacturing process that constructs the parts of the product into a whole unit through various fastening or jointing techniques. And forming (Incorrect Response D) is the process of shaping, bending, or stretching the product into a desired shape and does not add or remove material compared to the galvanization process that occurs in this scenario. |
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| 14 | C |
Objective 002 Tolerance is critical to ensuring quality control (Correct Response C) in manufacturing as it creates the criteria boundaries that indicate whether or not a final product meets specifications. Other components in the manufacturing process, such as cost containment (Incorrect Response A), waste reduction (Incorrect Response B), and safety (Incorrect Response D), are important, but they do not affect whether or not a final product meets the criteria to be delivered to customers. |
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| 15 | C |
Objective 002 Clays are mixtures of hydrated minerals, where water is chemically bonded to silicon, aluminum, or magnesium. Firing causes chemical changes in the minerals and evaporation of the separated water (Correct Response C). The quartz (Incorrect Response A) in clays will undergo physical changes during the firing process, but the laws of conservation are observed as the molecules rearrange but are not created or destroyed. Glass can be formed in small amounts (Incorrect Response B), but its formation would not change the mass of the greenware. Clay used for ceramics may contain small amounts of organic matter, but their combustion is not the main source of mass loss during firing, since these compounds are typically less than 3% of the mass of the clay (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 16 | A |
Objective 002 Heating a metal during manufacturing causes ferrous material to become more brittle (Correct Response A) because the process results in changes to its crystalline structure. Corrosion in ferrous metals (Incorrect Response B) typically occurs when the material is exposed to water or air. Manufacturers often work to prevent this from occurring by adding steps in the manufacturing process that reduce or prevent corrosion. Malleability of ferrous metal (Incorrect Response C) increases primarily through the addition of other metals, as heat only temporarily increases this property. When ferrous metals that contain such elements as iron, cobalt, or nickel are heated, the metal loses its magnetizing ability if the temperature reaches its Curie point (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 17 | C |
Objective 002 Glass (Correct Response C) was used as an insulator because it can withstand high temperatures, has a low electrical conductivity, and was relatively inexpensive. Wood (Incorrect Response A) is considered an insulator. However, it is highly flammable when in direct contact with electricity or heat. Steel (Incorrect Response B) and copper (Incorrect Response D) are primarily conductors of heat and electricity. Allowing electricity to flow into the cross arms of the power poles would be dangerous and inefficient. |
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| 18 | D |
Objective 002 The fourth line in the table (Correct Response D) best matches the tool with the correct safety procedure because any time a person is handling any type of nail gun the tool needs to be pointing away to prevent accidental discharge. A handheld chisel (Incorrect Response A) is generally constructed out of one or two components. Since this equipment is quite solid, securing loose parts before use is not required. There are no guards on a handheld wrench (Incorrect Response B). Lastly, when using an electrical belt sander (Incorrect Response C) the tool does not need to be sharpened before use because there are no sharp edges. |
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| 19 | D |
Objective 003 The role of embedded electronic microcontrollers (Correct Response D) is to measure the exhaust gasses produced by combustion engines. This information allows the users or mechanics to adjust the engine in order to increase efficiency and reduce emissions. The laws of thermodynamics have not changed in recent years, compared to major advancements in technology (Incorrect Response A). The extraction of fuels (Incorrect Response B) has not changed much or as dramatically in the last 40 years and has no bearing on the efficiency of the engine, as octane fuels are still being used in the combustion process. Any advancement in aerodynamics (Incorrect Response C) primarily effects vehicle efficiency as a whole, rather than the efficiency of an engine that is protected within the vehicle. |
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| 20 | B |
Objective 003 A decoder (Correct Response B) is a combinational circuit device that can have many inputs and many outputs. It is used to convert binary or digital data to other data forms, such as analog data. One typical example is converting radio signals into analog audio signals. A transponder (Incorrect Response A) is a telecommunications device that, upon receiving a signal, emits a new signal in response, but it is most commonly the same signal type. Voltmeters (Incorrect Response C) and thermocouples (Incorrect Response D) are measurement tools that can display voltage and temperature data, respectively; they are not devices used to convert signals from one form to another. |
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| 21 | B |
Objective 003 Cell-phone technology relies on radio waves moving through the air to communicate; therefore, it does not require the extensive ground infrastructure (Correct Response B) that landline telephones, which transmit signals through fibers, rely on. Cell phones do have the capability to provide functionality of computers, radios, or television (Incorrect Response A), as well as the ability to transmit text, images, and videos (Incorrect Response C), but these features are not responsible for their spread into previously unconnected regions. The ability to interchange software components (Incorrect Response D) depends on the make and model of the phone and has little relevance to where the cell phone is being used. |
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| 22 | A |
Objective 003 Shock absorbers are used to dampen the oscillation of springs in the vehicle to create stability in the car's movement (Correct Response A). When a vehicle encounters dips and bumps along a road, the system is used to cushion and absorb the energy from the impact in order to decrease movement caused by these events. A vehicle's frame and its tires are the primary source for supporting weight of a vehicle body and its cargo (Incorrect Response B). When a vehicle encounters cracks and bumps within the terrain (Incorrect Response C), the passengers and cargo will still feel the effects. However, they will not feel the effects as much if these parts were not included in the design. Lastly, the axles are the part of the car that allow the wheels to travel independently with respect to the vehicle body (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 23 | A |
Objective 003 In order for the airlines to determine which flights will be available at particular dates and times, the system needs to know the fleet's passenger capacity (Correct Response A). The system updates each time a seat is taken, allowing the airlines to use this information to chart which dates and times the planes fill the most often and compare that to the destinations that are the most popular. The number of flights to be scheduled in a day (Incorrect Response B) is important for air traffic controllers but does not inform the airlines which planes and routes are highest in demand. Net profits earned each day (Incorrect Response C) and price per seat on a flight (Incorrect Response D) depend upon what the airlines decide to charge. Airlines may consider supply and demand data in their calculations, but it is not a requirement when setting the costs of services and goods. |
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| 24 | B |
Objective 003 A feedback device (Correct Response B) is a component in a communication system that provides information about its environment to trigger a response based on the data collected. A sensor in a robotic device acts to inform the robot of its surroundings, and the device will respond based on what it is programmed to do in that situation. An input (Incorrect Response A) in this scenario is the light or reflection of light upon the sensor in the robot. The output (Incorrect Response C) is the robot's response to the situation. The processing device (Incorrect Response D) is a computer component included within the robot used to understand and execute instructions within its operational systems or hardware. |
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| 25 | A |
Objective 003 A processing device in a technical system is a chip within a computer component, used to understand and perform instructions based on incoming and outgoing data from operational systems or hardware. A microcontroller (Correct Response A) is the processor because it uses the incoming photo data to instruct the device to turn on or stay off within a set amount of time. The power supply (Incorrect Response B) functions to give energy to the system. photo re zis tors (Incorrect Response C) are a component used to affect photo resistance of any input luminosity information. And the lightbulb (Incorrect Response D) is the outgoing component that turns on or off based on the microcontroller; without the connection, the bulb would neither turn on nor stay off by itself. |
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| 26 | D |
Objective 004 Observations of red shifting that occurs between distant galaxies is primarily used to determine the rate of expansion for the universe because as the universe expands the light waves are stretched out, appearing more red the further away the light originated (Correct Response D). The bending of light as it passes through the gravitational field of a galaxy (Incorrect Response A) could be a factor to correct for when calculating expansion rates, but it will not give scientists direct evidence of expansion. Gravity waves (Incorrect Response B) can provide some information about the expansion of the universe, but they are not the primary evidence in determining the expansion rate. The Earth's motion in relation to the sun (Incorrect Response C) has a negligible role in the overall expansion of the universe. |
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| 27 | B |
Objective 004 The equation used to calculate the orbital velocity of a celestial body revolving around another body is V, for a circular orbit, is equal to  . G is equal to gravitational constant, M is the mass of the body at its center, and r is the radius of its orbit. Therefore, changes to gravitational force and change in radial distance between the two bodies are the best factors used to explain the difference in their orbital velocity (Correct Response B). Changes in density (Incorrect Response A), tilt of orbit (Incorrect Response C), and length of orbital path (Incorrect Response D) have effects on the planets, but they are not used to determine their velocity.
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| 28 | A |
Objective 004 A total lunar eclipse does not occur every month during the full moon phase because the Moon's orbital plane is tilted at an incline relative to Earth's plane of motion around the Sun (Correct Response A). A lunar eclipse occurs when all the bodies are aligned in the same plane and the Moon enters the shadow cast by the Earth. A lunar eclipse only appears to a viewer on the side of Earth that is currently experiencing night (Incorrect Response B). The distance between the Earth and the Sun has little effect on the probability of an eclipse (Incorrect Response C). Earth is larger than the Moon, so the shadow will completely cover the Moon when they are in the proper alignment (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 29 | B |
Objective 004 Earth's tilt has a direct impact on the seasons because it changes the amount of direct sunlight an area receives. Increasing the tilt of the Earth would mean that a hemisphere would receive more direct sunlight in the summer and less direct sunlight in the winter. This would lead to hotter summers and colder winters (Correct Response B). Earth's tilt would have to decrease in order to have cooler summers and warmer winters (Incorrect Response A). It would be impossible for both summers and winters to get colder (Incorrect Response C) or warmer (Incorrect Response D) in both the northern and southern hemispheres due to tilt changes. The conditions that lead to warmer summers in the northern hemisphere would lead to colder winters in the southern hemisphere and vice versa. |
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| 30 | A |
Objective 004 Blue giants are high-mass stars. The higher the mass of the star, the higher the pressure and temperature at their core. Since they burn much hotter than less-massive stars, they burn through their fuel much more rapidly (Correct Response A). Smaller stars, such as red dwarfs, can generally only fuse hydrogen (Incorrect Response B) and possess less fuel at the start of their lives (Incorrect Response D). Their cooler temperatures mean that they consume their fuel much more slowly than more-massive stars, leading to lifespans that are many times greater than those of blue giants. Within all types of true, living stars, atoms are colliding in the core and fusing (Incorrect Response C) to form heavier and heavier elements through the process of stellar nucleosynthesis. |
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| 31 | C |
Objective 004 Venus has a thick atmosphere that is rich in carbon dioxide (Correct Response C). The atmosphere of Mars (Incorrect Response A) does contain a high amount of carbon dioxide, but it is very thin in comparison to those of other planets. Neptune (Incorrect Response B) is a gas giant with a thick atmosphere that is composed of hydrogen, helium, and methane. Mercury (Incorrect Response D) does not have a proper atmosphere at all. Instead, there is an exosphere, or thin layer of material that has been removed from the surface of the planet or blown in by the solar winds. |
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| 32 | D |
Objective 005 The oldest recorded fossils known today are prokaryote microorganisms, similar to bacteria or archaea. Eventually during the Proterozoic eon, eukaryotic cells evolved, leaving fossilized remains. All of these types of organisms lacked the hard body parts (Correct Response D), like bones and shells, that are resistant to decay and are more likely to fossilize. Having a large population size (Incorrect Response A) or body size (Incorrect Response C) can increase the chance of some members leaving behind fossil remnants, but the organisms are much more likely to fossilize if they have structures that more readily mineralize. Particularly during the Proterozoic eon, life on Earth thrived in shallow seas, where fossilization is more likely to occur than on land (Incorrect Response B). |
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| 33 | B |
Objective 005 Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere reacts with rainwater to form a carbonic acid. Since limestone is primarily calcium carbonate, the slightly acidic water is able to begin to dissolve the limestone. The more precipitation an area gets, the more chemical weathering of the limestone will occur (Correct Response B). Changes in wind patterns (Incorrect Response A), differences in plant species (Incorrect Response C), and latitude (Incorrect Response D) can influence weathering rates, but they are less likely to have a relatively uniform effect on the limestone thickness. |
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| 34 | A |
Objective 005 Growing salt crystals best models the process of chemical sedimentary rock formation. The crystals form as the salt precipitates out of a supersaturated solution, which is a process that is very similar to how inorganic limestones (Correct Response A), such as oolitic limestones, stalactites, and stalagmites, form. Sandstone (Incorrect Response B) is formed by the cementation of sediments, grains, or fragments under the pressure of other layers of sediment and rock. Metamorphic granite (Incorrect Response C) is formed from its parent rock being subjected to high pressure and heat deep within the earth. Basalt (Incorrect Response D) is formed from the cooling of lava over a short period of time. |
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| 35 | A |
Objective 005 Oceanic crust is primarily formed when iron and magnesium-rich magma reach the surface at spreading centers and cool as basalt (Correct Response A). Granite (Incorrect Response B) has a higher amount of silica and oxygen and is much more commonly found in continental crust. Quartzite (Incorrect Response C) is formed through metamorphic processes that are generally absent on the seafloor. Shale (Incorrect Response D) can be formed in marine environment, but it is not the primary component of oceanic crusts. |
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| 36 | B |
Objective 005 Spreading centers (Correct Response B) are where magma from the mantle rises to the surface, cools, and hardens to form new crust. The majority of spreading centers occur in the ocean and are the primary source for new oceanic crust. Convergent plate boundaries (Incorrect Response A) do not result in the formation of new crust, and they are typically the sites where oceanic crust is destroyed as it is forced back down towards the mantle. Transform fault boundaries (Incorrect Response C) do not significantly add or take away crust material, since the plates are moving past each other. While volcanic hot spots (Incorrect Response D) do bring up mantle material to the surface, they are not widespread enough to form a majority of the oceanic crust. |
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| 37 | D |
Objective 005 Large quartz crystals are most likely to form when a material is allowed to cool slowly. This will generally happen when silica-rich magma cools underground (Correct Response D), where the heat of the magma slowly dissipates. Rapid cooling (Incorrect Response A) generally results in smaller crystals forming. Within a high-pressure magma chamber (Incorrect Response B), the temperatures are likely to be too high to allow for the quartz to crystallize. Quartz is composed of silicon and oxygen, so it does require silicate-rich magmas to form (Incorrect Response C), but crystal size is more dependent on the magma's rate of cooling than its composition. |
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| 38 | C |
Objective 005 Chemical weathering occurs when there are changes made to the molecular structure of a rock or mineral. Water can act as a weak acid, breaking apart the calcium carbonate of the limestone (Correct Response C). Mechanical weathering leaves the molecular structure of the material intact but may cause the material to move (Incorrect Responses A and D) or break into smaller pieces (Incorrect Response B). |
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| 39 | D |
Objective 006 The Coriolis effect is driven by the differences in the amount of solar radiation combined with the rotation of the Earth on its axis. These two phenomena work together to cause masses of moving air to deflect right or left depending on their latitude. The prevailing direction of the wind causes the oceans to form circular gyres as the water continues to move and be deflected (Correct Response D). The transfer of heat from the tropics to the poles (Incorrect Response A) is a result of wind circulation and ocean gyres but is not the source for their deflection or formation. The movement of tides (Incorrect Response B) originates from forces related to the gravitational relationship between the Earth, Moon, and Sun. The evaporation of surface water (Incorrect Response C) occurs when solar radiation reaches the top of the water body and causes the liquid to turn into water vapor into the atmosphere. It can affect weather conditions but has nothing to do with deflection of winds and formation of ocean gyres. |
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| 40 | B |
Objective 006 The ozone layer is a component of the stratosphere, which is the layer that extends from 10 kilometers to 50 kilometers above the Earth's surface (Correct Response B). Air samples from altitudes below 10 kilometers (Incorrect Response A) or higher than 50 kilometers (Incorrect Responses C and D) would not give any indication of the health of the ozone layer. |
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| 41 | A |
Objective 006 Reliable groundwater resources are most likely going to be found in areas where the soil has a high porosity and a water table that is reasonably close to the surface. Larger particles, like sand and gravel (Correct Response A), are going to provide large pore spaces where water can be found and easily extracted. A river will typically be at the level of the water table, so if a well site is near the river, the water table is likely to be close to the surface. Several factors will make it more difficult to extract the water, such as depth from the surface (Incorrect Response B) or small available pore spaces (Incorrect Responses C and D). |
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| 42 | D |
Objective 006 Onshore breezes occur on warm summer afternoons because the land heats more rapidly than the water. The warm air over the land rises, and the cooler air over the water moves in to take its place (Correct Response D). Trade winds (Incorrect Response A) and jet streams (Incorrect Response C), on the other hand, are a result of the differences in heat energy at various latitudes. The variation in their strength is more affected by the tilt of the Earth than what is at the Earth's surface. Spring tornadoes (Incorrect Response B) result from the interactions of large, unstable air masses, rather than from the local, surface-level heating differences. |
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| 43 | D |
Objective 006 If there is a deep warm layer of air and only a thin, extremely cold layer of air, then the precipitation will not have time to freeze as it travels towards the surface. It will, however, freeze upon impact (Correct Response D). Snow pellets (Incorrect Response A) will fall if the layer of cold air is deeper, since the precipitation will have a chance to freeze while still in the atmosphere. Wet snow (Incorrect Response B) occurs when there is a thin layer of warm air near the surface, while sleet (Incorrect Response C) requires a shallow warm layer situated above a surface-level cold layer. |
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| 44 | B |
Objective 006 The difference between Doppler radar and traditional radar is that Doppler radar can use the Doppler effect to determine not only the presence of precipitation but its velocity as well (Correct Response B). The snow water equivalent (Incorrect Response A), total precipitation (Incorrect Response C), and precipitation intensity (Incorrect Response D) can all be directly measured or calculated using both traditional and Doppler radar. |
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| 45 | B |
Objective 007 The western part of the United States experiences greater tectonic activity compared to the eastern United States, due to the faulting and deformation that results from the interactions between the Pacific and North American plate (Correct Response B). Although some western states may have drier and hotter climates (Incorrect Response A), the surface temperatures only have a small effect on the temperatures of the water deep below the surface. The thickness of the crust (Incorrect Response C) and amount of vegetation (Incorrect Response D) vary across the continent and minimally affect the groundwater temperatures. |
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| 46 | A |
Objective 007 The type of vegetation that thrives in a region depends on its climate. The species of conifers that are used for timber are well adapted to the short summers and harsh, long winters present in the Canadian provinces (Correct Response A). Rivers for transporting (Incorrect Response B) and harvesting of timber (Incorrect Response C) can occur in many locations throughout the United States and Canada. Much of the soil in Canada is neutral or acidic, which is preferred by many conifers, so the growth rate is limited by the longer winters and cooler summers (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 47 | C |
Objective 007 A positive climate feedback loop is where a change to one part of the system causes changes that amplify or increase the initial conditions. In this case, something causing an increase in global temperatures will trigger a series of events that causes global temperatures to continue to increase. This type of feedback loop is best exemplified through melting permafrost (Correct Response C). Melting of permafrost due to warming global temperatures will release more gases into the atmosphere, which contributes to the greenhouse effect, resulting in even warmer temperatures. Increased snowfall (Incorrect Response A), decomposing vegetation (Incorrect Response C), and slowing of thermohaline circulation (Incorrect Response D) represent negative climate feedback loops because these factors decrease the rate of change to the initial conditions. |
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| 48 | D |
Objective 007 Percolating water through active charcoal is most effective at removing toxins because charcoal has the ability to absorb and trap contaminates as the water passes through it (Correct Response D). Boiling water (Incorrect Response A) and exposing it to UV light (Incorrect Response C) are primarily used to disinfect and eliminate microbiological pathogens, but they do not physically remove other particles or chemicals that are harmful if consumed. While traces of ozone ( O 3 ) present with oxygen are highly effective at killing biological contaminants and can react with certain heavy metals causing them to precipitate out, if an additional filtration step is not added those materials will still be present in the water (Incorrect Response B). |
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| 49 | A |
Objective 007 A line graph (Correct Response A) is used to show relationship patterns or trends, as the points of data are connected over a set of time. Therefore, showing the relationship between growth and time is best depicted in this format. Pie charts (Incorrect Response B) depict the relationship of parts to a whole, such as percentages or fractional data. A scatterplot (Incorrect Response C) does show a relationship between two variables, but as the data points are not connected, it is harder to see the patterns at a glance. Lastly, a flowchart (Incorrect Response D) is used to display a progression, process, sequence, or flow of events and actions in relation to each other. Here, it could show the chain of events occurring, but it would not easily quantify the relationship between the different factors. |
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| 50 | B |
Objective 007 As much as possible in a natural system, the researcher should only manipulate one variable in an experiment (Correct Response B). Altering more than one variable at a time may cause confusion about the cause of any changes seen to the system. Attempting to evaluate all of the factors that may affect the chemistry of the lake (Incorrect Response A) is time- and resource-intensive and is not likely to lead to better results than a more targeted investigation. A study can produce valid results by determining that there is a relationship between two variables, even if the causal mechanism cannot yet be determined (Incorrect Response C). However, excluding data that contradict the expected outcome (Incorrect Response D) is likely to result in invalid results. |
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| 51 | C |
Objective 008 Meiosis is a cell division process that results in four haploid daughter cells, while mitosis produces two diploid cells (Correct Response C). The number of cells produced by each process is swapped in Incorrect Response A. The daughter cells produced through cell division (Incorrect Response B) may vary in size, but this is not a defining characteristic between these two processes. Both daughter cells of mitosis and meiosis contain a complete set of organelles and the structures needed in order to function properly (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 52 | A |
Objective 008 The lowest, or most basic, level of organization in a plant is the organelle. Of the list present, only the chloroplast is an organelle (Correct Response A). Cells, like sclereids (Incorrect Response B), are composed of organelles and are the next level up in complexity. Tissues are composed of many cells working together, as in a plant's xylem (Incorrect Response C). Many different types of tissues working together form organs, like the leaf of a plant (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 53 | B |
Objective 008 There are six defined characteristics of life: the ability to reproduce (Correct Response B), the ability to use energy, the ability to grow and change, having stable internal conditions, being organized, and being composed of at least one cell. It is possible that life does not need to possess carbon-containing molecules (Incorrect Response A). There are also many organisms that are at or colder than their surrounding temperatures (Incorrect Response C). All living things are organized but are not necessarily highly ordered (Incorrect Response D), as exemplified by organisms such as amoebas. |
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| 54 | C |
Objective 008 Structure X is the nucleus, which contains the genetic material of the cell (Correct Response C). The cellular membrane, which is the barrier of the cell, controls ion exchange (Incorrect Response A). The vacuoles of the cell, shown here as circles or ovals near the cell membrane, store nutrients of the cell (Incorrect Response B). Cellular waste products are broken down by lysosomes, which carry enzymes for that function (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 55 | C |
Objective 008 Fermentation is an anaerobic process, or one that is performed without oxygen, while cellular respiration is an aerobic process, which means that it requires oxygen to be performed (Correct Response C). All different sized cells can undergo either process (Incorrect Response A). Although aerobic processes produce more ATP, which can be used for the cell's energy needs, it takes time to switch between anaerobic and aerobic processes (Incorrect Response B). Light availability, or even lack of light, does not necessarily initiate fermentative processes (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 56 | B |
Objective 008 Mammals are able to rid their bodies of carbon dioxide through gas exchange in the alveoli of the lungs. As carbon dioxide levels rise, a mammal can increase its breathing rate to restore balance (Correct Response B). Slowing down the rate of cellular respiration (Incorrect Response A) would decrease the amount of carbon dioxide being produced, but it would lead to another imbalance by decreasing the amount of energy available to the organism. Decreasing the cardiac output (Incorrect Response C) will decrease the amount of blood flowing into the lungs, and it will also decrease the amount of carbon dioxide that can be released from the blood. Hemoglobin (Incorrect Response D) is a protein that binds to oxygen as it circulates within the blood stream; producing more will take time and will not significantly alter the concentration of carbon dioxide. |
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| 57 | D |
Objective 008 Bacteria cultures always have the potential to grow hazardous microbes. In order to prevent the unwanted spread of germs, petri dishes should be sterilized and disposed of as a biohazard (Correct Response D). Petri dishes should not be reused (Incorrect Responses A and B), nor should they be thrown away in the regular trash (Incorrect Response C). |
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| 58 | C |
Objective 009 The amount of sunlight (Correct Response C) that reaches the forest floor is frequently a limiting factor in forests because tree canopies can prevent direct sunlight from reaching the ground, thereby reducing the ecosystem's primary productivity. Forests with deciduous trees tend to have more sunlight penetrating their floors because these trees lose their leaves seasonally. These are compared to densely populated conifer forests that maintain their canopy throughout the year. Water (Incorrect Response A), soil nutrients (Incorrect Response B), and winter temperatures (Incorrect Response D) are primarily dependent on the relationship between other factors such as latitude and geological features, rather than on the type of trees that populate the forest. |
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| 59 | C |
Objective 009 Succession is a sequential process of new growth in an ecosystem after development of a new formation, disruption, natural disaster, or other change that occurs in the community over a period of time. Early successional plants are among the first to repopulate an area. In order to use the new niche most effectively, they tend to grow rapidly (Correct Response C). Many early successional plants, such as grasses and forbs, are small in size (Incorrect Response A), but there are trees like alders, willows, and poplars that are among the first species to grow on the site. Deep rooted systems (Incorrect Response B) tend to occur after rapid growth of pioneer species due to the breakdown of rock and increase in soil nutrients. Delayed maturation (Incorrect Response D) is more characteristic of plants found during the later stages of succession. |
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| 60 | A |
Objective 009 The data in the table indicates a slow growth of one or two birds a day and then jumps to double in size overnight, which is shown in the graph in Correct Response A. This is not a linear relationship, as seen in the graph in Incorrect Response B, and population is increasing over time rather than decreasing, which is depicted in the graphs in Incorrect Responses C and D. |
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| 61 | C |
Objective 009 A biome is classified according to the climate of the region, or its temperature and precipitation patterns (Correct Response C). The other factors depend wholly or partially on these two variables. Soil type and depth (Incorrect Response A) is a factor of the underlying geology and the climate. Day length and prevailing wind direction (Incorrect Response B) influence temperature and precipitation patterns, but not all locations at the same latitude are in the same biome. Nutrient availability and food web complexity (Incorrect Response D) can be characteristics of a biome, but they are the products of the climate and history of a region. |
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| 62 | A |
Objective 009 Sage brush tends to grow in dry, nutrient-poor soils, so one way to ensure its success is to reduce competition for resources (Correct Response A). Herbivores (Incorrect Response B) generally consume the leaves of a plant, so releasing a chemical into the soil would have little effect on its predators. Cross-pollination helps sagebrush plants increase reproductive success, so it would not be beneficial to limit cross-pollination by limiting the growth of other sagebrush plants (Incorrect Response C). Many diseases and pests (Incorrect Response D) are specific to a species or a group of species, so inhibiting germination of other plants is unlikely to help the sagebrush prevent illness. |
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| 63 | D |
Objective 009 Ecological succession is the gradual development of a complex ecosystem as a site moves through several stages of plant and animal communities (Correct Response D). Evolution (Incorrect Response A) is a change that happens within a species, not on an ecosystem scale. Biological magnification (Incorrect Response B) does occur at the ecosystem level, but it is referring to the increasing concentration of a contaminant, such as mercury, as it moves through the trophic pyramid. Exponential growth (Incorrect Response C) refers to a mathematic model. It could apply to an increase in the number of species or biomass in the field, but it does not explain the change in species presence over time. |
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| 64 | C |
Objective 010 The stigma is adapted for receiving pollen because during the pollination process, the grains transfer from the anther to the sticky stem of a stigma (Correct Response C). The petal (Incorrect Response A) functions to attract pollinators, the anther (Incorrect Response B) is the organ that produces the pollen, and the ovary (Incorrect Response D) of a flowering plant is where seed development and fertilization occur. |
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| 65 | B |
Objective 010 Binary fission generally occurs in single-celled organisms. It is an asexual reproductive method where the replication and division of the parent's genetic material produce two identical daughter cells (Correct Response B). To form genetically distinct daughter cells (Incorrect Responses A and C), some form of genetic recombination needs to occur. Recombination only occurs in sexual reproductive methods. Four daughter cells (Incorrect Response D) are produced during meiosis in organisms that reproduce sexually. However, the chromosomes are not genetically identical to those of the parent cell. |
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| 66 | C |
Objective 010 Animals with larger body sizes require more energy to maintain their body mass. If an environmental change occurred in which the climate became drier, favoring smaller, efficient grazers, the big cats would have to spend more energy hunting smaller prey to maintain their body mass (Correct Response C). A cooler environment (Incorrect Response A), increased rainfall (Incorrect Response B), and increased seasonality (Incorrect Response D) are all climate conditions that are likely to lead to increases in the population of the bovine species. |
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| 67 | C |
Objective 010 Analyzing a pedigree chart is the best method to trace a genetic disorder in a family because the patterns of inheritance can be traced through each generation (Correct Response C). Even though cohort analysis (Incorrect Response A) can analyze and classify types of genetic disorders by common traits, it lacks data explaining the relationship between inheritance through the generations. A case control analysis (Incorrect Response B) is good to use to compare individuals with or without the disorder to determine the effects of environmental factors that may cause harmful mutations or disorders to occur. A double-blind analysis (Incorrect Response D) is typically performed to determine the effectiveness of a treatment and may or may not give any insight into the underlying causes of a genetic disorder. |
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| 68 | B |
Objective 010 The phenotypic ratio can be found by building a Punnett square with one parent as big B little b and one parent as little B little B , as shown.
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| 69 | B |
Objective 010 When DNA is replicating under normal conditions, A pairs with T, while C and G pair (Correct Response B). Incorrect Response A does not use this complementary rule and instead assumes that the complementary DNA strand is the same as the original sequence. Incorrect Response C represents a strand of complimentary RNA, while Incorrect Response D incorrectly pairs A and C, while T and G pair. |
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| 70 | C |
Objective 011 A variant gene can remain in a population, even if it poses no advantage, because these genes can be recessive and are not expressed (Correct Response C). Genetic drift (Incorrect Response A), mutations (Incorrect Response B), and natural selection (Incorrect Response D) may explain the existence of a variant gene, but these scenarios affect the communities through favoring an advantage or disadvantage of gene expression. Also, this does not explain why these phenotypes are not expressed in the majority of individuals. |
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| 71 | D |
Objective 011 Natural selection (Correct Response D) occurs when the organisms that are most fit for particular conditions are able to survive and reproduce, passing on the beneficial traits to their offspring. The mosquitoes that had the ability to resist DDT were able to pass their DDT resistance to their offspring. Recombination of genes may produce a mutation that confers resistance (Incorrect Response A), but it would take several generations to spread within the population. Changes that occur to an organism during its lifetime are typically not passed down to subsequent generations. A mosquito may develop resistance to DDT, but the resistance is unlikely to be heritable (Incorrect Response B). The changes to a population that occur because of genetic drift (Incorrect Response C) are not influenced by a particular selection pressure like DDT; rather, they occur as a result of population-level random chance. |
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| 72 | D |
Objective 011 Some multicellular protists have the ability to switch between sexual and asexual reproduction when it is needed based on environmental conditions (Correct Response D), compared to multicellular eukaryotes that can reproduce using either method but cannot switch back and forth. Since some protists reproduce sexually, they can descend from two parent cells that may fuse together to form a diploid zygote rather than a single parent cell (Incorrect Response A). Both multicellular protists and eukaryotic cells (Incorrect Response B) can regenerate damaged tissues and reproduce through budding processes. The majority of protists are not specialized or differentiated into tissues; however, even though they are not highly specialized, some cellular differentiation does occur in these multicellular structures (Incorrect Response C). For example, kelp has cells dedicated to different functions, such as nutrient production or reproduction, and has a defined tissue structure. |
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| 73 | C |
Objective 011 Unique mitochondrial and chloroplast DNA indicate that these organelles must have, at one time, been individual prokaryotes. Over time, these prokaryotes would have formed a symbiosis that eventually became a dependency (Correct Response C). The formation of organic molecules was vital to the emergence of life, but this process does not directly explain why these organelles have their own DNA (Incorrect Response A). The emergence of oxygen in the atmosphere was the result of the waste product of photosynthetic organisms, which allowed for aerobic organisms to evolve (Incorrect Response B). However, if these organisms had chloroplasts, they would not necessarily need their own DNA. While there is much support for life arising in the oceans, this does not impact whether DNA is needed for an organelle to function (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 74 | D |
Objective 011 The theory of evolution states that: (1) the trait being selected for must have more than one allele, (2) that trait must be inherited, (3) there are more offspring under selection than can survive, and (4) different alleles confer different survival rates. With this in mind, the population of insects has a gene that is being selected for (the resistance allele) and it has selective pressure on it (those without the allele succumb to the pesticide) (Correct Response D). A hare's coat turning colors is the result of environmental changes, but there is no difference in trait shown across the population (Incorrect Response A). Becoming more skilled at hunting is an acquired, not inherited, trait (Incorrect Response B). The root system is not placed in context of how the rest of the population is surviving (Incorrect Response C). |
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| 75 | A |
Objective 011 An organism with a short generation time allows the scientist to look at the effects over many generations (Correct Response A). High mutation rates will mean there are many alleles to examine but may confound the ability to obtain clear results (Incorrect Response B). Asexual reproduction would allow the scientist to examine how offspring change from a single progenitor, but it would mean that the subjects of the study are mostly genetically identical and therefore may not have a difference in alleles (Incorrect Response C). The larger the genome, typically, the larger the organism with more genes to select from. However, without a short generation time, a study of an organism with a larger genome may take a relatively long time (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 76 | D |
Objective 012 If an atom is visualized as a two-dimensional target, its nucleus occupies only a fraction of a percent of that hypothetical target's area. The remaining area would be largely empty space occupied by still tinier electrons. The rarely observed alpha particle deflections occur when an alpha particle passes near or collides with the nucleus (Correct Response D). Incorrect Response A describes electrons in orbitals. Incorrect Response B describes electrons under the Bohr atomic model. Incorrect Response C describes atomic mass according to an older model of atomic structure put forward by John Dalton. |
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| 77 | A |
Objective 012 "Pure substance" is a term used to describe chemical elements and compounds, substances with a fixed structure down to the atomic level that can be described with a single chemical formula, such as alcohol (Correct Response A). Milk (Incorrect Response B) contains both water- and fat-soluble compounds, as well as water itself. Gasoline (Incorrect Response C) is a mixture of hydrocarbons, each with its own chemical formula. Blood (Incorrect Response D) is a water-based solution of organic molecules that also contains a variety of living cells. |
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| 78 | C |
Objective 012 Hydrogen bonds are a type of intermolecular force that can form between the oxygen atom in one water molecule and a hydrogen atom in another water molecule. These forces are relatively strong compared to other molecules of similar molecular weights and are responsible for some properties of water, including surface tension (Correct Response C). The size of atoms (Incorrect Response A) can be a proxy for the strength of dispersion forces, another intermolecular force, but the size of the atoms in a water molecule is unremarkable. The solvent properties of water (Incorrect Response B) are produced by the molecule's ability to attack solute particles. The specific heat capacity of water (Incorrect Response D) is another effect of hydrogen bonding. |
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| 79 | B |
Objective 012 Rusting is an oxidative process in which iron reacts with and donates electrons to oxygen (Correct Response B). The resulting iron oxide has a higher mass than the former iron and is nonmagnetic. Temperature variations (Incorrect Response A) will not typically cause iron to separate in the way described. The railing is elemental iron, not an iron-oxygen compound (Incorrect Response C). Iron is not reduced (Incorrect Response D) in typical chemical reactions. |
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| 80 | C |
Objective 012 The reaction of hydrochloric acid with sodium hydroxide produces a solution of sodium chloride (Correct Response C). In Incorrect Responses A and B, a chemical reaction occurs so that a reactant will not be produced. The reactant oxygen atoms (Incorrect Response D) become part of the water produced in the products and so are unavailable. |
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| 81 | D | Objective 013 When there is a temperature difference between an object and its surroundings, there is a strong tendency for the energy to reach an equilibrium or balance between the two. If the object is warmer than the surrounding environment (Correct Response D), the heat will flow to the surroundings. Ice melting (Incorrect Response A), water boiling (Incorrect Response B), and ice sublimation (Incorrect Response C) are all cases where the object is colder than the surrounding environment, so the heat will be transferred to the object, not to the environment. |
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| 82 | C | Objective 013 The transfer of heat is reduced because the thermal conductivity values are much lower than conductive materials due to spacing between panels and particles, which slows the movement of this energy (Correct Response C). Radiant barriers (Incorrect Response A) are often constructed of thin layers and of shiny material, such as aluminum foil. They are designed to reflect the heat, rather than trapping it as is seen with foams, wools, and other fibers. If convection is occurring within the insulating materials, it will increase the rate of heat transfer, not decrease it (Incorrect Response B). Having many layers of material will reduce heat transfer, but it will not be able to stop it entirely as it is not a completely closed system or contained within a vacuum (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 83 | D | Objective 013 A dependent variable in a scientific investigation is a measured effect of what is being tested or changed within the study. In this scenario, the amount of heat conserved is the independent variable because it is the effect that occurs when a different insolation material is applied to each iteration of the design (Correct Response D). The insulated material (Incorrect Response A) is the independent variable because it is the aspect of the experimental set up that the researcher is intentionally changing and is trying to test. The time (Incorrect Response B) and volume (Incorrect Response C) are the controls because they remain the same for each trial to create the same conditions across the experiment to produce comparable results. |
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| 84 | A | Objective 013 Solid solutes tend to lower the freezing points of liquids (Correct Response A) by interfering with the molecular attractions and arrangements necessary for state change. Phase changes are physical changes in intermolecular forces, not chemical changes in covalent bond structure (Incorrect Response B). Rock salt is mostly or completely sodium chloride, whose enthalpy of solvation is slightly endothermic and so would tend to slightly decrease the temperature of water (Incorrect Response C). Rock salt would not eliminate the hydrogen bonds between water molecules (Incorrect Response D). Eliminating the hydrogen bonds between water molecules would produce a vapor. |
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| 85 | D | Objective 013 Holding volume and temperature constant, there is a direct relationship between the amount of gas and its pressure. Decreasing the amount of gas in the chamber decreases the pressure (Correct Response D). Holding volume and the amount of gas constant, there is a direct relationship between the temperature of a gas and its pressure. Increasing the temperature of the gas in the chamber increases the pressure (Incorrect Response A). Increasing the amount of gas in the chamber increases its pressure (Incorrect Response B). Holding the amount of gas and its temperature constant, there is an inverse relationship between the volume of a gas and its pressure. Decreasing the volume of a gas would increase its pressure (Incorrect Response C). |
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| 86 | B | Objective 014 The object with the greatest potential energy is object B (Correct Response B). Using the formula provided, the result of multiplying the three values together is equal to P E = 5 times 9.8 times 3 = 147 meters per second squared . Substituting the appropriate variables for objects A, C, and D within the same formula, the answers are 68.3 meters per second squared , 98 meters per second squared , 49 meters per second squared respectively. |
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| 87 | C | Objective 014 Mechanical energy is the energy of an object in motion and includes both kinetic ( K E ) and potential energy ( P E ). The best example of mechanical energy is dropping a ball from a set height (Correct Response C). The ball's motion is observable when it moves downward, as both K E and P E changes throughout its journey in its path. Illuminating a surface with black light best represents electromagnetic or light energy (Incorrect Response A). Powering a device with batteries best represents chemical energy (Incorrect Response B). Lastly, adding ice to a glass of water best depicts thermal energy (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 88 | C | Objective 014 As the masses fall, the net change in the gravitational potential energy of the system can be measured precisely. This mechanical energy lost by the masses is found to be directly proportional to the thermal, internal energy gained by the water as the water's temperature rises (Correct Response C). Incorrect Response A is a statement of the work-energy theorem but describes the entire system, for which there is no loss of kinetic energy. The internal energy of the water (Incorrect Response B) cannot decrease because the temperature has increased. At constant volume or pressure, entropy of the water (Incorrect Response D) will increase with an increase in temperature. |
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| 89 | D | Objective 014 As air rises away from the surface of the Earth, the air mass temperature decreases. Because temperature is directly proportional to the average kinetic energy of the air molecules, the kinetic energy will therefore decrease (Correct Response D). The potential energy of the air mass (Incorrect Response A) does not contribute to water vapor condensation. The thermal energy cannot convert into chemical energy (Incorrect Response B) unless there is an endothermic reaction or phase change specified. Response C incorrectly states that the heat energy of the air mass will increase as it rises. |
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| 90 | A | Objective 014 Entropy is a measure of the amount of disorder, or randomness, in a system. The production of a molecule from disordered or random components into a structured, ordered molecule, like sugar, is a process that will decrease the disorder and therefore decrease the entropy (Correct Response A). Incorrect Response B describes ordered salt molecule structures dissolving into a disordered solution, so the entropy increases. Incorrect Response C describes an ordered structure of a cliff eroding into components of sand and stone, so the entropy increases. Incorrect Response D describes an ordered structure of a metal frame decomposing into rust, so the entropy increases. |
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| 91 | D | Objective 015 The truck starts to move in reverse direction at 12 seconds because the displacement is a negative, based on its original position at zero (Correct Response D). The truck has not stopped moving at 24 seconds but has a zero displacement from its origin (Incorrect Response A). The truck is moving in a reverse, not a forward, direction at 36 seconds (Incorrect Response B). The slope of 0 at 6 seconds indicates that the truck is not moving and therefore is not accelerating (Incorrect Response C). |
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| 92 | A | Objective 015 Work is the product of force applied to an object and its traveled distance. Since force is dependent on the mass and acceleration of an object, then the largest dog would be expected to demonstrate the most amount of work when climbing the same set of stairs, assuming a similar rate of acceleration (Correct Response A). The fastest dog (Incorrect Response B) and the slowest dog (Incorrect Response D) are traveling the same distance, but their mass is unknown. The smallest dog (Incorrect Response C) should apply the least amount of work because it has the lowest mass. |
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| 93 | B | Objective 015 This classroom demonstration has two people pulling on opposite sides of a rope. This best represents net forces because the students can observe what happens if the people use the same force on each side or what happens if another person pulls with more force than the other (Correct Response B). Since this activity does not focus on the thermodynamic changes that may occur, it is not likely to be helpful for demonstrating entropy (Incorrect Response A). Energy transfers (Incorrect Response C) are occurring during the rope pull, but they are not immediately apparent. Additionally, there are no outward changes to the matter in the demonstration, so it is unlikely to help students visualize the conservation of matter (Incorrect Response D). |
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| 94 | A | Objective 015 Newton's second law states that F = M A ; given the acceleration and force, one can calculate the mass by solving for M equals F divided by A (Correct Response A). Volume (Incorrect Response B) requires size or length measurements. Density (Incorrect Response C) requires size or length measurements, in addition to mass measurements. Weight (Incorrect Response D) is a common term for gravity force— W = m g —and requires the value of the acceleration due to a nearby planet's gravity, g, in addition to the mass. |
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| 95 | B | Objective 015 At constant velocity, the acceleration of the box must be zero. Therefore, all horizontal forces must balance each other and all vertical forces must balance each other. Forces 2 and 3 must be equal in magnitude to produce balance vertically, and forces 1 and 4 (Correct Response B) must also be equal to produce balance horizontally. Forces 1 and 3 (Incorrect Response A), forces 2 and 4 (Incorrect Response C), and forces 3 and 4 (Incorrect Response D) are not required to balance because each pair of forces is perpendicular to each other. |
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| 96 | D | Objective 016 A guitar string makes a transverse wave because the vibration of the string is perpendicular to the direction the wave will travel. Sound waves are longitudinal waves because the direction of the vibration of air molecules is along the direction the sound wave travels (Correct Response D). A wind gust (Incorrect Response A) is a pressure wave, like sound, and is therefore longitudinal. Wind produces a translational water wave. A person clapping (Incorrect Response B) is not a wave. A supersonic jet breaking the sound barrier (Incorrect Response C) is a longitudinal pressure wave creating a longitudinal sound wave. |
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| 97 | A | Objective 016 White light consists of many colors of light, and each color of light depends on its wavelength, lambda . Refraction occurs when light passes from one material into another if the materials have different indices of refraction, n. The speed of light in the material is given by c divided by n , where c = speed of light in a vacuum. Thus, a material with large refractive index will decrease the speed of light. Additionally, the speed, v = lambda f , also depends on the wavelength of light. As a result, different wavelengths, or colors, of light will have different speeds and therefore refract different amounts within a material. This dispersion of white light produces colors that refract different amounts and spread out into a full spectrum (Correct Response A). Amplitude (Incorrect Response B) is not affected by the transition from one material to another, nor does an amplitude change affect the color of light. Changes in reflection (Incorrect Response C) do not cause this phenomenon since prisms allow light to pass through them and refract. Light may become polarized entering a material (Incorrect Response D), but polarization does not cause color dispersion into a full spectrum of colors. |
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| 98 | C | Objective 016 Current flowing through a wire in a light switch can be said to travel almost instantaneously because an electric field forms throughout the wire at close to the speed of light (Correct Response C). Electrons (Incorrect Response A) travel within the wire at a drift speed that is much less than the speed of light. The atoms (Incorrect Response B), or any other charged ion (Incorrect Response D), in an electric wire circuit do not move translationally throughout the wire when current flows. Only free electrons move through the wire as current flows. |
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| 99 | B | Objective 016 Parallel circuit branches connected to one voltage source will have the same voltage applied across the branch. The voltage of the source and the internal resistance of any light will not be affected by a light in a different branch burning out. Since the working lights will have the same internal resistance with the same voltage applied, by Ohm's Law— I equals V over R —each branch will draw the same current (Correct Response B). Response A is misinterpreting the circuit to be a series circuit of light bulbs and incorrectly states that a burned bulb still completes a circuit and allows charge to flow. Response C is incorrect because it violates Ohm's Law for any parallel branch. Response D is describing the charge drawn from the battery to correctly decrease, but the charge drawn by each individual branch containing a working bulb will remain the same. |
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| 100 | B | Objective 016 Ferromagnetism arises from the movement of charged particles, like electrons, that spin. This electron spin generates a magnetic dipole in each atom. When these atomic dipoles all line up, the bulk material will produce a net, or overall, magnetic field (Correct Response B). Neither the polarization of atoms nor their oscillations (Incorrect Response A) affect the magnetic properties of a material. Nuclear vibrations (Incorrect Response C) have no effect on magnetic properties. Although magnetic fields are generated from electron motion, it is not the orbital motion (Incorrect Response D) but rather the spin motion that produces the magnetic dipoles. |
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| Total Correct: | Review your results against the test objectives. | |||||||||||
Open Responses, Sample Responses, and Analyses
| Question Number |
Your Response Read about how your responses are scored and how to evaluate your practice responses |
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| 101 |
Open Response Item Assignment #1
For each assignment, you may type your written response on the assigned topic in the box provided. |
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| First Sample Weak Response |
First Sample Weak Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #1 Mendel studied pea plants. He demonstrated that a tall plant crossed with a short plant would create a tall plant. This means that genes are a key concept in pea plant growth. The tall gene dominates the short one. The combination of a tall and short gene is called heterozygous. If both genes are the same, either short or tall, it is called homozygous. The dominant trait of a heterozygous combination will always be the one expressed. Refer to the diagram where T (upper case) is the dominant gene for height and t (lower case) is the recessive one. The environmental factors are meaningless in this case. Mendel proved this. This could be the second key concept. A Punnett square key to table below big T big T = Tall big T little T = Tall big T little T = Tall little T little T = Short
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| First Weak Response Analysis |
Analysis of First Weak Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #1 This is an example of a weak response because it is characterized by the following: Purpose: The candidate, while having an adequate knowledge of Mendel's work with pea plants, fails to adequately address the relationship between environmental factors and genetic ones. Instead, that relationship is dismissed due to a limited understanding of the overall significance of Mendel's work, focusing on only one isolated aspect of it. This could have been scored as adequate, if the candidate had taken more time to explain this relationship. The prompt asked for an understanding of the cause-and-effect relationship that exists between the two concepts. The candidate neglected to address this part of the instructions. This response is scored as limited, albeit on the higher side of that rating, because there was this shortcoming. Therefore, in this case, the purpose of the assignment was not fully achieved. Subject Matter Knowledge: The subject matter knowledge is limited because, while there is an adequate understanding of Mendel's experiments with peas, there is nearly no concession to the additional role of the environment in the growth of plants. Support: The example used is limited to only what the candidate appears to know, the one isolated aspect of Mendel’s work. Rationale: The rationale is limited, making a case for only half of the relationship between the two concepts. |
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| Second Sample Weak Response |
Second Sample Weak Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #1 The potential height of a pea plant is genetic. Reaching this potential depends on environmental factors, such as the amount of sunlight, the nutrient value of the soil, and the amount of water available to the roots. Temperature of the soil and of the air are also factors. What is unclear, of course, is epigenetic factors. For instance, are certain genes turned on or off due to environmental factors? |
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| Second Weak Response Analysis |
Analysis of Second Weak Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #1 This is an example of a weak response because it is characterized by the following: Purpose: Response is limited for several reasons, including the glaring lack of a graph, formula, and/or diagram as instructed by the second bullet of the prompt. Subject Matter Knowledge: The response reflects adequate knowledge of the subject matter, but it is delivered in a manner that marks it as incomplete due to the lack of sufficient detail. Support: In order to have made the response adequate, it is necessary to include more relevant examples showing better support for the stated knowledge. Rationale: A rationale needs to provide sufficient understanding of the dual factors of environment and genetics rather than present a question introducing a new concept. |
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| First Sample Strong Response |
First Sample Strong Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #1 Key concepts related to the environmental and genetic factors that influence the growth of pea plants would be that (1) pea plants' growth is regulated by both of these factors with (2) genetics being the basis for the expected outcome and the environment holding the trump card that decides whether that outcome is realized. All living things are governed by the concept of optimum conditions. Plant growth is a typical example. Plants require sunlight, water, proper temperature, proper soil p H , proper amounts of the key nutrients of phosphorous, nitrogen, and potassium as well as micronutrients such as iron, zinc, manganese, copper, etc. For each of these factors, there is a curve of optimum value. Too much or too little of something vital, and the plant's growth will not reach its full potential (see diagram). That potential is set by the genetics that the plant possesses. When Gregor Mendel did his landmark studies of the expression of traits in pea plants, one of the traits he examined was height. He determined that a gene existed that would make a pea plant taller versus an alternate one that would leave it shorter. If a pea plant inherited the tall gene, which was dominant, it would express itself during the plant's life cycle by growing taller than other pea plants that did not possess this gene. However, Mendel had to be careful to treat all of his plants equally. If he failed to water or fertilize the potentially tall plant as well as he did the potentially shorter one, he might have ended up with two plants of equal height instead of one taller and one shorter. Regardless of the genetics, if the environment is not favorable, the expression of genes will be negatively affected.
A diagram of environmental factors versus the ratio of growth is shown. There are five zones along the environmental factors being rated from low to high. The lowest zone is the zone of intolerance, followed by the zone of physiological stress and the zone of optimum in the middle with minimal stress. However, as the environmental factor progresses higher, there is a zone of physiological stress and a zone of intolerance at the highest environmental factor. To illustrate this, overlaid over the zones is a bell curve with the ratio of growth highest in the middle of the zone of optimum and the trendline quickly tapering down to either side to intersect the x-axis at the boundary between each zone of physiological stress and zone of intolerance. |
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| First Strong Response Analysis |
Analysis of First Strong Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #1 This is an example of a strong response because it is characterized by the following: Purpose: The candidate focused on the need to tie environmental factors to genetic factors in regards to the growth of peas. There is a clear understanding that growth is the interplay between these two things. Whether the candidate wished to stress the importance of genetics over environment or vice versa is not important. The role of these factors is an active debate in science with evidence for the overarching importance of each. This candidate's response is thorough, having fulfilled the purpose by addressing all three bullets of the prompt. Subject Matter Knowledge: The response demonstrates subject matter knowledge through its integration of principles that govern gene expression together with the range of tolerance effect for key environmental factors. Support: The response demonstrates support for that knowledge through the use of high-quality relevant examples such as citing Mendel as the discoverer of the principle of dominance and recessiveness as well as providing the diagram showing the range of tolerance. Rationale: The response demonstrates a thorough rationale by employing a sound argument to show the effect that environmental factors have on the expression of genes. |
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| Second Sample Strong Response |
Second Sample Strong Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #1 The growth of a pea plant is affected by different environmental and genetic factors. The most important factor is the genetic information inherited from both of its parents, which controls most of its features, such as color, shape, resistance towards certain diseases, etc. Though less often, genetic mutation does occur from time to time, resulting in changes in the plant's appearances and genetic information as well. Environment also plays an important part in here. For example, the type of climate (sunlight exposure, average temperature, precipitation, seasonal changes) and the type of soil it grows in are both important to the growth of a pea plant. Negative environmental factors, such as pollution of various kinds, will have an effect on the plant's growth as well. Although genetics determine the key features of a plant, environment will have a huge impact on the plant's growth in a way that throughout time, plants will adapt to its environment and develop certain features that might be passed onto its future generations. In that way, environmental factors will ultimately affect the plant's genetic information and have a more profound impact on its growth and reproduction. See scanned diagram for an example of how environmental conditions affect the growth habits of a single species of plant that grows in our region.
A diagram is shown of the growth habits of black spruce on a mountain in New Hampshire. It has a caption that reads “The same species of plant responding to different environmental conditions in its growth habits.” An incline is shown from 1,000 feet to 5,000 feet with different sized trees dotting the incline. At 1,000 feet, the black spruce are 30 to 40 feet tall. Around 3,000 feet, they are 10 to 15 feet tall. Around 4,000 feet, they are small shrubs and at 5,000 feet above sea level, they are sprawling and only grow in rock crevices. |
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| Second Strong Response Analysis |
Analysis of Second Strong Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #1 This is an example of a strong response because it is characterized by the following: Purpose: This is a thorough response because it addresses all aspects of the prompt and has therefore fulfilled the purpose of the assignment. Subject Matter Knowledge: Relating the dimensions of genetic and environmental factors to the growth of pea plants reflects thorough subject matter knowledge: genetic information inherited from both of its parents, environment... climate, type of soil. Support: High-quality relevant examples for the types of traits controlled by genetics (color, shape, resistance towards certain diseases) and kinds of environmental factors (sunlight exposure, average temperature, precipitation, seasonal changes) support the subject matter knowledge. Rationale: The response employs a sound rationale by providing a graphical illustration of how these environmental factors can override genetics in the growth habits of a single species of plant. |
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| 102 |
Open-Response Item Assignment #2
For each assignment, you may type your written response on the assigned topic in the box provided. |
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| First Sample Weak Response |
First Sample Weak Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #2 Electrostatic forces are those forces between charged objects or surfaces. A scientific claim is that if you put a charge on an object it will stick to another object or surface. To demonstrate this, we will use some balloons and a piece of silk or fur. Blow up the balloons and attempt to stick the balloons to the wall. They will not stick. Now rub the balloons with the silk. By doing this you are transferring a charge on the balloons and the balloons will now stick to the wall or to another person. |
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| First Weak Response Analysis |
Analysis of First Weak Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #2 This is an example of a weak response because it is characterized by the following: Purpose: The assignment is partially achieved in that there is a scientific claim and a description of a procedure; however, only one electrostatic force is described. Subject Matter Knowledge: There is limited use of scientific vocabulary, and there are no variables, only the constants of the balloons and the silk. The scientific procedure is limited to a single result, reflecting limited subject matter knowledge. Support: This response does not explain in depth the relationship between opposite and similar charges. Rationale: The final bullet of the charge is missing; therefore, the response lacks an explanation of how this result supports the claim. |
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| Second Sample Weak Response |
Second Sample Weak Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #2 Electrostatic forces will cause two objects that have some charge to interact with each other. I think that two objects of the same charge will repel each other, and that two objects of different charge will attract each other. Use balloons as an object to rub against your head. This frees negative charges from the balloon and adds them to your head. Hold the balloon close to your head and observe what happens to your hair. Describe what is happening to your friends. Repeat the process with a rubber rod - rubbing a felt cloth over it to negatively charge the rod. Hold the rod close to the balloon and then close to your hair. Observe what is happening and take careful notes using a chart. Possible result - The hair may be attracted to the balloon, and repelled by the rod - the balloon may be repelled by the rod. Noting the different behaviors (repelling/attracting) between different objects will provide evidence that "something" is different about all these objects. |
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| Second Weak Response Analysis |
Analysis of Second Weak Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #2 This is an example of a weak response because it is characterized by the following: Purpose: The testable claim is proposed, but not stated: I think that two objects... A claim is more definitive and states what will happen, not what may happen. Therefore, the purpose is not totally achieved. Subject Matter Knowledge: There is no differentiation between positive and negative charge. All materials listed are variables. There are no constants to make comparisons. Support: Response alludes to different behaviors but lacks the understanding as to which charges are going to repel and which are going to attract. Rationale: Since there is no definitive answer as to which charges are attracting and which are repelling, the response does not provide a rationale for the proposed claim. |
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| First Sample Strong Response |
First Sample Strong Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #2 Electrostatic forces are forces that exist between two charged particles. The testable scientific claim is that these forces can attract or repel. We will demonstrate that similar charges repel each other and opposite charges attract. To investigate this claim, we will need some simple equipment. We will use a Styrofoam ball suspended from a string and then two Styrofoam balls suspended from two different strings but attached at a single pivot point. We will also need a glass rod, rubber rod, a piece of silk and a piece of fur. Take the single Styrofoam ball suspended from a string and then take the rubber rod and rub it with the piece of fur. Touch the rubber rod to the Styrofoam ball. The charge on the rod will be transferred to the ball. Then rub the rod again with the fur. A similar charge will be placed on the rod. Now bring the rod close to the Styrofoam ball. The ball will be repelled by the rod showing that similar charges repel one another. Now rub the glass rod with the silk. When you now bring the glass rod toward the Styrofoam ball, the ball will be attracted toward the rod showing that opposite charges attract. Now take the two attached at a pivot point. Take either the glass rod rubbed with the silk or the rubber rod rubbed with the fur and bring either one toward the Styrofoam balls. The charge will be transferred to the balls, and the balls will separate from each other. This also shows that similar charges repel from one another. By taking either rod and rubbing it with the respective cloth we can put a charge on the rod and by having it come in contact with either Styrofoam ball, we can transfer the charge to the ball and then demonstrate how the charges can be either attracted or repelled, supporting the tested claim. |
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| First Strong Response Analysis |
Analysis of First Strong Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #2 This is an example of a strong response because it is characterized by the following: Purpose: The assignment is fully achieved. All four bullets are addressed: there is a testable scientific claim, a procedure that investigates the claim, a possible result, and an explanation of how the data support the claim. Subject Matter Knowledge: Appropriate vocabulary is used with both variables and controls present: glass rod, rubber rod, a piece of silk and a piece of fur, single string, single strings attached at a single pivot point, and the control of using the alternate materials to move the Styrofoam balls in opposite directions. The scientific procedure is fully explained. Support: The scientific claim is supported with a description of how the forces attract using the silk variable and repel using the fur variable. Rationale: The scientific procedure includes and provides a clear result that the charge can be transferred, demonstrating how the charges can be either attracted or repelled. |
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| Second Sample Strong Response |
Second Sample Strong Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #2 Using a Wimshurst machine, we will demonstrate that charges can be transferred from metal plates to solid balls via wire brushes. Then the charge can be transferred to either people or discharged as the two metal balls come close to each other. Turn the crank slowly on the machine, keeping the two metal balls on the arms about 10 cm apart from each other. After a few minutes, stop turning the crank and then slowly bring the balls close to each other. Opposite charges will have built up on each ball, and as the balls come close to each other, a spark will occur from one ball to the other. The opposite charges are attracted to each other. Now move the arms with the balls much farther apart, about 1 meter, and turn the crank harder. After a few minutes, have the students in the class hold hands with each other, forming a chain. Now have the end students hold on to each of the balls. The balls will discharge through the students and each will feel a slight tingling sensation. This will demonstrate that a charge can be transferred from the metal plates onto the balls and then onto the students or into the air. One ball will be positively charged and the other negatively charged. The spark generated when the two balls come close to each other or the tingling sensation felt when the students touch both balls shows that opposite charges attract each other. If this is true, then we can conclude that like charges will repel. |
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| Second Strong Response Analysis |
Analysis of Second Strong Response to Open-Response Item Assignment #2 This is an example of a strong response because it is characterized by the following: Purpose: The response thoroughly achieves the purpose by showing that opposite charges attract each other by generating a spark or tingling sensation. The demonstration is very well described with significant support. Subject Matter Knowledge: The response reflects accuracy and appropriateness of subject matter knowledge by using scientific vocabulary and knowledge of the Wimshurst apparatus operation and purpose. Support: The supporting details are completely relevant to the demonstration of how opposite charges behave as they approach one another. Rationale: The arguments made are sound and reflect a thorough understanding of the concept of electrostatic forces. The final conclusion validates the scientific claim. |
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| Review the Performance Characteristics and Score Scale for Written Performance Assignments. | ||||||||||||
Multiple Choice Question
Practice Test Evaluation Chart
In the evaluation chart that follows, the multiple-choice questions are arranged in numerical order and by test objective. Check your responses against the correct responses provided to determine how many questions within each objective you answered correctly.
Subarea 1 : Technology / Engineering
Objective 0001: Apply knowledge of engineering design.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | A | |
| 2 | A | |
| 3 | C | |
| 4 | B | |
| 5 | B | |
| 6 | A | |
| 7 | D | |
| 8 | D | |
| 9 | B |
out of 9
Objective 0002: Demonstrate knowledge of tools, materials, and manufacturing.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 10 | B | |
| 11 | B | |
| 12 | C | |
| 13 | A | |
| 14 | C | |
| 15 | C | |
| 16 | A | |
| 17 | C | |
| 18 | D |
out of 9
Objective 0003: Demonstrate knowledge of technological systems.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 19 | D | |
| 20 | B | |
| 21 | B | |
| 22 | A | |
| 23 | A | |
| 24 | B | |
| 25 | A |
out of 7
Subarea 1 (Objectives 0001–0003) Total out of 25
Subarea 2 : Earth and Space Science
Objective 0004: Demonstrate knowledge of the components of the solar system and universe and their interactions.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 26 | D | |
| 27 | B | |
| 28 | A | |
| 29 | B | |
| 30 | A | |
| 31 | C |
out of 6
Objective 0005: Apply knowledge of Earth's geosphere, geologic history, and processes.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 32 | D | |
| 33 | B | |
| 34 | A | |
| 35 | A | |
| 36 | B | |
| 37 | D | |
| 38 | C |
out of 7
Objective 0006: Demonstrate knowledge of Earth's hydrosphere, atmosphere, weather, and climate.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 39 | D | |
| 40 | B | |
| 41 | A | |
| 42 | D | |
| 43 | D | |
| 44 | B |
out of 6
Objective 0007: Demonstrate knowledge of natural resources, natural hazards, and human impacts on the environment.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 45 | B | |
| 46 | A | |
| 47 | C | |
| 48 | D | |
| 49 | A | |
| 50 | B |
out of 6
Subarea 2 (Objectives 0004–0007) Total out of 25
Subarea 3 : Life Science
Objective 0008: Demonstrate knowledge of the characteristics and processes of living organisms.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 51 | C | |
| 52 | A | |
| 53 | B | |
| 54 | C | |
| 55 | C | |
| 56 | B | |
| 57 | D |
out of 7
Objective 0009: Apply knowledge of the characteristics of populations, communities, ecosystems, and biomes.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 58 | C | |
| 59 | C | |
| 60 | A | |
| 61 | C | |
| 62 | A | |
| 63 | D |
out of 6
Objective 0010: Apply principles related to the inheritance of characteristics.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 64 | C | |
| 65 | B | |
| 66 | C | |
| 67 | C | |
| 68 | B | |
| 69 | B |
out of 6
Objective 0011: Demonstrate knowledge of principles related to the theory of biological evolution.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 70 | C | |
| 71 | D | |
| 72 | D | |
| 73 | C | |
| 74 | D | |
| 75 | A |
out of 6
Subarea 3 (Objectives 0008–0011) Total out of 25
Subarea 4 : Physical Science
Objective 0012: Apply knowledge of the structure and properties of matter.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 76 | D | |
| 77 | A | |
| 78 | C | |
| 79 | B | |
| 80 | C |
out of 5
Objective 0013: Apply knowledge of the states of matter, particle motion, and heat.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 81 | D | |
| 82 | C | |
| 83 | D | |
| 84 | A | |
| 85 | D |
out of 5
Objective 0014: Apply knowledge of different forms of energy and the conservation of energy.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 86 | B | |
| 87 | C | |
| 88 | C | |
| 89 | D | |
| 90 | A |
out of 5
Objective 0015: Apply knowledge of the concepts of force, motion, work, and power.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 91 | D | |
| 92 | A | |
| 93 | B | |
| 94 | A | |
| 95 | B |
out of 5
Objective 0016: Apply knowledge of the characteristics and properties of waves, electricity, magnetism, and electromagnetism.
| Question Number | Your Response | Correct Response |
|---|---|---|
| 96 | D | |
| 97 | A | |
| 98 | C | |
| 99 | B | |
| 100 | B |
out of 5
Subarea 4 (Objectives 0012–0016) Total out of 25
Practice Test Score Calculation
The practice test score calculation is provided so that you may better gauge your performance and degree of readiness to take an MTEL test at an operational administration. Although the results of this practice test may be used as one indicator of potential strengths and weaknesses in your knowledge of the content on the official test, it is not possible to predict precisely how you might score on an official MTEL test.
The Sample Responses and Analyses for the open-response items may help you determine whether your responses are more similar to the strong or weak samples. The Scoring Rubric can also assist in estimating a score for your open responses. You may also wish to ask a mentor or teacher to help evaluate your responses to the open-response questions prior to calculating your total estimated score.
How to Calculate Your Practice Test Score
Review the directions in the sample below and then use the blank practice test score calculation worksheet to calculate your estimated score.
Multiple-Choice Section
| Enter the total number of multiple-choice questions you answered correctly: | 71 | ||
| Use Table 1 below to convert that number to the score and write your score in Box A: | A: | 195 |
Open-Response Section
| Enter the number of points (1 to 4) for your first open-response question: | 3 | ||
| Enter the number of points (1 to 4) for your second open-response question: | 3 | ||
| Add those two numbers (Number of open-response question points): | 6 | ||
| Use Table 2 below to convert that number to the score and write your score in Box B: | B: | 50 |
Total Practice Test Score (Estimated MTEL Score)
| Add the numbers in Boxes A and B for an estimate of your MTEL score: | A + B = | 245 |
Practice Test Score Calculation Worksheet: General Science (64)
Table 1:
| Number of Multiple-Choice Questions Correct | Estimated MTEL Score |
|---|---|
| 0 to 25 | 113 |
| 26 to 30 | 121 |
| 31 to 35 | 129 |
| 36 to 40 | 137 |
| 41 to 45 | 146 |
| 46 to 50 | 154 |
| 51 to 55 | 162 |
| 56 to 60 | 170 |
| 61 to 65 | 179 |
| 66 to 70 | 187 |
| 71 to 75 | 195 |
| 76 to 80 | 204 |
| 81 to 85 | 212 |
| 86 to 90 | 220 |
| 91 to 95 | 228 |
| 96 to 100 | 237 |
Table 2:
| Number of Open-Response Question Points | Estimated MTEL Score |
|---|---|
| 2 | 31 |
| 3 | 36 |
| 4 | 41 |
| 5 | 46 |
| 6 | 50 |
| 7 | 55 |
| 8 | 60 |
Use the form below to calculate your estimated practice test score.
Multiple-Choice Section
| Enter the total number of multiple-choice questions you answered correctly: | |||
| Use Table 1 above to convert that number to the score and write your score in Box A: | A: |
Open-Response Section
| Enter the number of points (1 to 4) for your first open-response question: | |||
| Enter the number of points (1 to 4) for your second open-response question: | |||
| Add those two numbers (Number of open-response question points): | |||
| Use Table 2 above to convert that number to the score and write your score in Box B: | B: |
Total Practice Test Score (Estimated MTEL Score)
| Add the numbers in Boxes A and B for an estimate of your MTEL score: | A + B = |